105 Important Pharmacy Law and Ethics MCQ Questions with answers


105 Important Pharmacy Law and Ethics MCQ Questions with answers

Pharmacy Law and Ethics MCQ

105 Important Pharmacy Law & Ethics MCQ with answers for preparation of sessional. annual and pharmacy exit exam….

General Principles of Law and Pharmacy Profession MCQ

Q.1 Government of India Act Import of drugs was passed in the year

(a) 1933
(c) 1935

Q.2 Drug Import Bill was passed in the year

(a) 1935
(c) 1939

Q.3 Jurisprudence is the study of

(a) Public health
(b) Fundamental legal principles
(c) Maternity health
(d) Health Education

Q.4 The instruments of legislation are

(a) Act
(b) Section
(c) Orders
(d) All of above

Q.5 Drug inquiry committee was formed under the chairmanship of

(a) Sri Ramnath Chopra
(b) Sri Kamnath Singh
(c) Mudaliar
(d) Krishnavadan

Pharmacy Act 1948 and Rules MCQ 

Q.6 PCI is reconstituted at every

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

Q.7 PCI was constituted in

(a) 1919
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1942

Q.8 CAMO of state comes under

(a) Elected member
(b) Ex-officio member
(c) Nominated member composition
(d) None of these

Q.9 Among the elected member of PCI six members elected by

(a) U.G.C
(b) Central council 
(d) All of above

Q.10 In nominated member of the central council’s members nominated by

(a) MCI
(b) Central Government 
(d) All of above

Drug and Cosmetics Act 1940 MCQ

Q.11 Drug Inspector is appointed under ____section of the act

(a) 42 of IPC
(b) 36 of IPC
(c) 21 of IPC
(d) 41 of IPC

Q.12 The drug samples taken by the drug inspector for analysis are sent to

(a) Government Analyst
(b) Drug Controller
(c) Testing Laboratories 
(d) Chemical Analyst

Q.13 The schedule for the life period of the drug is 

(a) Schedule Q
(b) Schedule P
(c) Schedule R
(d) Schedule S

Q.14 List of the minimum equipment required for the efficient running of the pharmacy is given in schedule

(a) Schedule F
(b) Schedule M
(c) Schedule J
(d) Schedule N

Q.15 The members of DTAB hold the office for a period of

(a) 3 Years
(b) 1 Year
(c) 5 Years
(d) 7 Years

Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substance Act 1985 MCQ

Q. 16 Cannabis sativa yields

(a) Opium
(b) Medicinal opium
(c) Morphine
(d) Hemp

Q.17 Examples of Narcotic drugs

(a) Opium
(b) Coca
(c) Hemp
(d) All of above

Q.18 Papaver somniferum yields

(a) Opium
(b) Coca
(c) Hemp
(d) All of above

Q.19 Opium derivatives include 

(a) All the preparations containing less than 0.2% morphine
(b) All the preparations containing more than 0.2% morphine 
(c) All the preparations containing less than 0.2%cocaine
(d) All the preparations containing more than 0.2%cocaine 

Q.20 The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances consultative committee consists of

(a) 20 members
(b) 30 members
(c) 40 members
(d) 50 members

Drugs and Magic Remedies Act 1954 MCQ

Q.21 Which of the following is the example of magic remedies?

(a) Talisman
(b) Mantra
(c) Kavacha
(d) All of above

Q.22 Advertisement of drugs claiming cure of disease mentioned in Schedule-J is

(a) Granted.
(b) Prohibited 
(c) Exempted
(d) None of above

Q.23 Display signboard or notices by a registered medical practitioner on his premises fall under

(a) Regular advertisement
(b) Permitted advertisement
(c) Exempted advertisement
(d) Prohibited advertisement

Q.24 Identify the class of advertisement related to drugs that is prohibited.

(a) Printed or published by the Government
(b) Sent confidentially to RMP
(c) For the correction of menstrual disorders in women
(d) Including any book or treatise

Q. 25 Any announcement made orally or by means of producing or transmitting light, sound or smoke, is known as

(a) Order
(b) Commitment
(c) Resolution
(d) Advertisement

Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960 MCQ

Q.26 According to The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 Animal means any living creature except

(a) Birds
(b) Animals
(c) Human beings
(d) Microorganisms

Q.27 Animal welfare board is established by

(a) State Government
(b) State Council
(c) Central Goverment 
(d) Central Council

Q.28 When was the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act passed?

(a) 1960
(b) 1955
(c) 1961
(d) 1651

Q.29 The chairman of Animal Welfare Board of India is appointed by 

(a) Pharmacy Council of India 
(b) MCI
(c) Central Government 
(d) None of the Above 

Q.30 How many members from Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) are nominated in Animal welfare board of India by the Central Government?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6

Poisons Act 1919 MCQ

Q.31 The poison act came into existence in the year?

(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1921
(d) 1910

Q.32 __________ may regulate the possession and sale of any specified poison.

(a) Central government
(b) Poisons control authority
(c) State government
(d) Poison rehabilitation bureau

Q.33 The objective of the poison act 1919 is to regulate and control

(a) Import of poison
(b) Sale of poison
(c) Possession of poison 
(d) All of above

Q34 According to the Poison Act, the government is authorized to regulate the import of poison.

(a) Central government
(b) State government
(c) Poison rehabilitation bureau
(d) None of above

Q.35 _______of specified poison is allowed only under and in accordance with the conditions regulated by the Central government.

(a) Manufacture
(b) Sale
(c) Import
(d) All of above

FSSAI Act and rules MCQ

Q. 36 Full form of FSSAI is

(a) Food Standards and Safety Authority of India
(b) Food Sample and Standards Authority of India 
(c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(d) None of these

Q.37 At____ head office of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is located.

(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Ahmadabad

Q.38 According FSSAI, ________shall be responsible for inspection of food business, drawing samples and sending them to Food analyst for Analysis.

(a) Food Safety officer
(b) Designated officer
(c) Assistant Commissioner
(d) Commissioner

Q.39 The Chairperson and the members other than ex officio Members of FSSAI shall hold office for years.

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Q.40 Food analyst after receiving the sample from the Food Safety Officer shall analyses the sample and sends the analysis report mentioning method of sampling and analysis within ___days to Designated Officer with a copy to Commissioner of Food safety.

(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 20

National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) MCQ

Q.41 What is the meaning of ED in the calculation of the retail price of drugs?

(a) Excise duty
(b) Exempted duty
(c) Extra Duty
(d) Emergency Duty

Q. 42 The prime objective of this act is to make sure that essential drugs are available to all at a reasonable price. 

(a) NDPS Act
(b) MTP Act
(c) DPCO Act
(d) D and C Act

Q.43 Which schedule means any formulation, included in the First Schedule by generic versions or brand name?

(a) Scheduled Formulation 
(b) Non-scheduled Formulation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q. 44 MAPE should not be more than

(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 50%
(d) 70%

Q.45 The Drugs Prices Control Order is applicable to

(a) Ayurveda medicines
(b) Unani Medicines
(c) Homoeopathic medicines.
(d) Allopathic Medicines

Code of Pharmacy Ethics MCQ

Q.46 The code of ethics of Pharmacy is developed by

(a) PCI
(b) SPC
(c) MCI
(d) DCGI

Q.47 Following points should be considered by Pharmacists while dealing with their trade 

(a) Price structure
(b) Fairtrade price
(c) Purchase of drugs 
(d) All of the above

Q.48 Following points should be considered by Pharmacists while dealing with their profession.

(a) Professional vigilance
(b) Law-abiding citizens
(c) Relationship with professional organizations
(d) All of the above

Q.49 The following points should be considered by a Pharmacist while dealing with his medical profession.

(a) Limitation of professional activity 
(b) Clandestine arrangement
(c) Liaison with public
(d) All of the above

Q.50 What is the code of ethics for pharmacists?

(a) Pharmacist in relation to his job 
(b) Pharmacist in relation to the medical profession
(c) Pharmacist in relation to his trade
(d) All of the above

Medical Termination of Pregnancy act and Rule MCQ

Q.51 A consent of___ is required for termination of pregnancy of 20 weeks.

(a) Doctor holding MBBS degree
(b) Gynaecologist
(c) Doctor holding MD degree
(d) Two registered Medical Practitioners

Q. 52 A registered medical practitioner shall not be guilty of any offence under that Code or under any other law for the time being in force, if any pregnancy is terminated by him

(a) If the length of pregnancy does not exceed 12 weeks.
(b) If the length of pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks but does not exceed 20 weeks.
(c) Where a pregnancy occurs due to the failure of any contraceptive device.
(d) All of the above

Q 53 Medical Termination of Pregnancy act was passed in year.

(a) 1965
(b) 1971
(c) 1947
(d) 1945

Q.54 When the length of pregnancy exceeds from 12 to 20 weeks, the opinion of how many RMP is considered for termination of pregnancy?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q.55 Guardian is a person who is a

(a) Minor
(b) Lunatic
(c) Take care of minor or lunatic
(d) None

Role of all the Government Pharma Regulatory Bodies MCQ

Q.56 Where is the Head Quarter of CDSCO located?

(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
(c) Delhi

Q.57 IPC became a fully operational Autonomous body formed on

(a) 1st January 2009 
(b) 1 January 2011
(c) 1st January 2010 
(d) 1st January 2012

Q.58 How many Zonal offices of CDSCO are there?

(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8

Q.59 The sub-zonal office of CDSCO is located

(a) Ghaziabad
(b) Bangalore
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Chennai

Q.60 How many laboratories are operational under CDSCO? 

(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 7

Good Regulatory Practice MCQ

Q.61_______is an instrument, apparatus, implements machine, implant, in vitro reagent or other similar article that is intended for use in the diagnosis, prevention and treatment of disease or other medical conditions.

(a) Medical device
(b) Electronic device
(c) Gadget
(d) None of above

Q. 62 Drug Regulatory body of India is.

(a) MHRD
(b) FDA
(d) PMDA

Q.63 Import of medical device licence is

(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years

Q.64______is e-governance system to discharge various functions performed by CDSCO under Drug and Cosmetic Acts 1940.

(a) e-commerce
(c) e-Pharmacy
(b) Swayam

Q.65 Head office of CDSCO is at

(a) Chennai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Ahmedabad

BCS Classification System MCQ

Q.66 Biopharmaceutics classification system classifies the drugs into one of the groups.

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q. 67 According to Biopharmaceutics Classification System, Class II drugs have

(a) High Solubility/ High Permeability
(b) Low Solubility/ High Permeability 
(c) High Solubility/ Low Permeability
(d) Low Solubility/ Low Permeability

Q.68 Which BCS class shows High Solubility and Low permeability?

(a) BCS Class | 
(b) BCS Class II
(c) BCS Class III
(d) BCS Class IV

Q.69 According to Biopharmaceutics Classification System, Class IV drugs have

(a) High Solubility/ High Permeability
(b) Low Solubility/ High Permeability
(c) High Solubility/ Low Permeability
(d) Low Solubility/ Low Permeability

Q.70 A drug substance is considered to be highly permeable when the systemic bioavailability is

(a) 80% or more
(b) 85% or more
(c) 90% or more
(d) 100% or more

Blood Bank MCQ

Q.71 The interval between two blood donations should be

(a) 6 weeks
(b) 8 weeks
(c) 10 weeks
(d) 12 weeks

Q.72 What is the full form of NBTC?

(a) National Blood Transfusion Council
(b) National Blood Transfer Council
(c) National Blood Transfusion Center 
(d) National Blood Transfer Center

Q.73 During blood donation the removal of components is called, Blood _______.

(a) Cytopheresis
(b) Plasmapheresis
(c) Apheresis
(d) Leukapheresis

Q.74 The disease cannot be transmitted through transfusion of blood

(a) AIDS
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Malaria
(d) Cancer

Q.75 Donation of blood can cause

(a) AIDS
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Malaria
(d) None of above

Clinical Establishment Act and rules

Q. 76 What is not covered under the Clinical Establishment Act 2010?

(a) Clinical establishments owned, controlled or managedby the Armed Forces.
(b) Clinical Establishment in the States or UTS mentioned in the schedule of the Act; unless they repeal existing Act and adopt Clinical Establishments Act
(c) Clinical Establishments of those categories and of those recognised systems of medicine for which date has not been appointed by the State Government, who has otherwise adopted the Act.
(d)All of the above

Q.77 How many members are there in the National Council for Clinical Establishment?

(a) 25
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 10

Q.78 The Clinical Establishment Act was passed in which year?

(a) 2010
(c) 2015
(b) 2012
(d) 1980

Q.79 The Clinical Establishment Act is enforced by

(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Pharmacy Council of India 
(d) Medical Council of India

Q.80 Which type of Clinics are covered under the Clinical Establishment Act?

(a) Government
(b) Private
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Biomedical Waste Managment MCQ

Q.81 Which of the following areas has the lowest chance of producing biomedical waste?

(a) Hospitals
(b) Clinics
(c) Laboratories 
(d) Agricultural lands

Q. 82 Which of the following is not a biomedical waste?

(a) Animal waste
(b) Chemical waste
(c) Microbiological waste
(d) Domestic waste

Q.83 Which of the following is not a waste treatment method for biomedical waste?

(a) Incineration
(b) Sieving
(c) Autoclaving
(d) Chemical disinfecting

Q.84 Should expired syrups and liquid medicines be emptied in the kitchen sink?

(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) or (b)

Q.85 In what category of waste do paint, household cleaners, medical waste, and solvents belong?

(a) Hazardous
(b) Compost
(c) Municipal solid
(d) Industrial

Bioethics MCQ

Q.86 Regarding the concept of bioethics, which of the following statement is false?

(a) It has to do with moral dimension of Medical care.
(b) Bioethics is the same as Medical ethics.
(c) It has to do with all aspect of Medical care. 
(d) It has to do only with cloning and euthanasia.

Q.87 Which is incorrect regarding giving valid consent?

(a) It comes with caveat that patient can’t change their mind
(b) It is done without pressure and coercion
(c) It is given in background of sufficient counselling
(d) It is given by a patient with capacity for such decision

Q.88 Which of the following principles is not relevant in autonomy?

(a) Consent
(c) Confidentiality
(b) Self-determination.
(d) Capacity

Q.89 The core principles of bioethics are the following except

(a) Justice
(c) Autonomy
(b) Beneficence
(d) Maleficence

Q.90 Bioethics best practices entail the following except

(a) Acceptance of the fact patient can change his/her mind regarding a therapeutic intervention.
(b) Counselling before seeking consent.
(c) Valid consent is a continuous process. 
(d) Discountenance non-consent in mentally fit but very sick patient.

Consumer Protection Act MCQ

Q.91 Which Consumers Right is not guaranteed under Consumer Protection Act, 2019? 

(a) Right to Choose
(b) Right to Exploitation
(c) Right to be Heard
(d) Right to seek Redressal

Q.92 Who can make a complaint under this Act?

(a) Consumer
(b) Any recognized consumer association
(c) One or more consumers having the same interest.
(d) All of above

Q.93 What is the Monetary jurisdiction of the District Commission?

(a) Up to 1 Crore
(b) Up to 10 Crore
(c) Up to 5 Crore
(d) None of above

Q.94 Who is the head Investigation Wing?

(a) Police Officer
(b) Director General
(c) Magistrate
(d) None of above

Q.95 Who elects Commissioner of the Central Authority’s and other Commissioner?

(a) State Government
(b) President
(c) Central Government 
(d) Prime Minster

Disaster Management Act MCQ

Q.96 When was the Disaster Management Act passed?

(a) 23 December 2005
(b) 25 December 2005
(c) 15 August 2005
(d) 2 October 2005

Q.97 What is the full form of NDMA?

(a) National Disaster Management Area
(b) Natural Disasters Manmade Authority
(c) National Disaster Management Authority
(d) National Drainage Management Authority

Q.98 What is the full form of NDRF?

(a) National Disaster Response Force
(b) Natural Disasters Relief Factor
(c) National Disaster Relief Force
(d) National Drainage Response Force

Q.99 Who is the Head of the National Disaster Management Authority?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Cabinet Minister

Q.100 Under which Ministry of Government of India does the National Disaster management Authority function?

(a) Ministry of Environment
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Foreign Affairs

Medical Devices MCQ

Q.101 Medical device other than in vitro diagnostic medical devices classified on the basis of parameters specified in Part-1 of the First Schedule, in Class B is

(a) Low risk
(b) Low moderate risk
(c) Moderate high risk 
(d) High risk

Q.102 Disinfectants are classified under which class according to Medical Devices Rules 2017?

(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Class D

Q. 103 What are the uses of Medical devices?

(a) Diagnosing
(b) Monitoring
(c) Preventing
(d) All of above

Q.104 Bone cement are classified under which class according to Medical Devices Rules 2017?

(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Class D

Q.105 The High-Risk medical devices are classified under which class of Medical Devices Rules?

(a) Class A 
(b)Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Class D


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